Fairly new to watercolors.   If 2 colors are similar (hue, tone and all that other stuff) why would someone choose an opaque color that is staining rather than a similar opaque color that is non-staining?  Am I missing something in not understanding why an artist would prefer a staining opaque instead of a non-staining opaque?  I would appreciate any insight into this.

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Well I'm not a watercolourist but I would think that transparent washes can be used over other colours as in glazing, whereas an opaque colour may simply hide the colour underneath.

It could also have something to do with the lightfastness of the colour, it's tendency to fade over time. I know that cadmiums, which are very opaque, have excellent lightfastness.

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